Independent Researches - Vortal naukowy
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| Wpisał Andrzej Lechowski |
| Piątek, 13. Marzec 2009 20:39 |
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Could we say that NOTHING was since ever? Does it have any sense? And now: If statement that NOTHING was since ever (infinitely long) has sense, so the statement that SOMETHING was since ever is equally true. Nevertheless, my reasoning is as follows: There "Was-Is-Will_be" some STATE. Notion "State" is to be understood as SOMETHYNG or NOTHING (nowadays defined as the universe), because some STATE must be! Only man use differentiation of motion of something that was, is or will be performed. But time means changes. And what was when there weren’t any changes? There was just a certain state. There might be asked a question: How did this state start? Well, it didn’t start. It simply is! If we have a glimpse for some monument, so we are unable to distinguish any difference between its past, present and future, because these states are merged (at least seemingly). This is a certain analogy to a physical STATE. Actuation of time in the idea perceived by man, as a result of birth of matter, provokes an illusion that either something must have its beginning, or something lasts indefinitely long. If we say that "infinitely long", we automately use the notion of time, which had not been born yet, and start to apply measure of time, whereas notion of time loses its sense. If it wouldn’t lose it, that could mean, the state never could start, as infinity cannot have its beginning. Conclusion: NOTHING/SOMETHING "Was-Is-Will_be" = STATE. Well, in my point of view the beginning can have time/motion of something, that started to spin (rotate). It’s a feature of the universe, that everything is rotating around something. The STATE therefore underwent a change by something that initiated the birth of time. |
| Zmieniony ( Niedziela, 05. Kwiecień 2009 19:16 ) |
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